On ons, 2011-06-29 at 10:15 -0700, David E. Wheeler wrote:
> On Jun 29, 2011, at 10:13 AM, Florian Pflug wrote:
>
> > Because there might be more than one range type for a
> > base type. Say there are two range types over text, one
> > with collation 'de_DE' and one with collation 'en_US'.
> > What would the type of
> > range('foo', 'foooo')
> > be?
>
> The one that corresponds to the current LC_COLLATE setting.
Yes, or more generally, we have logic that determines, for example, what
collation to use for
'foo' < 'foooo'
The same logic can be used to determine what collation to use for
range('foo', 'foooo')
(In fact, if you implement range() as a user-space function, that will
happen automatically.)
